JKP Constable mock test 4rd
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Question 1 Unattempted
If $$\alpha$$ and $$\beta$$ represent the complex or real roots of the quadratic function $$x^2 - px + q = 0$$, deduce the algebraic form for the expression $$\alpha^3 + \beta^3$$.
A) $$p(p^2 + 3q)$$
B) $$p(p^2 - 3q)$$
C) $$p^3 - q^3$$
D) $$p^3 + 3pq$$
Explanation:
From Vieta's formulas, $$\alpha + \beta = p$$ and $$\alpha\beta = q$$. Using the algebraic identity $$\alpha^3 + \beta^3 = (\alpha+\beta)^3 - 3\alpha\beta(\alpha+\beta)$$, we substitute to get $$p^3 - 3qp$$, which factors seamlessly into $$p(p^2 - 3q)$$.
Question 2 Unattempted
In a deductive relational system, $$A \star B$$ means A is the father of B; $$A \oplus B$$ means A is the sister of B; $$A \otimes B$$ means A is the mother of B; $$A \oslash B$$ means A is the brother of B. If the expression $$P \otimes Q \star R \oplus S \oslash T$$ holds strictly true, what is the relational identity of $$P$$ with respect to $$T$$?
A) Paternal Grandmother
B) Mother
C) Maternal Grandmother
D) Aunt
Explanation:
$$P \otimes Q$$ means P is mother of Q. $$Q \star R$$ means Q is father of R. $$R \oplus S \oslash T$$ means R, S, and T are siblings. Since Q is the father of these siblings and P is Q's mother, P is the paternal grandmother of T.
Question 3 Unattempted
Assertion (A): The algebraic equation $$x^2 + y^2 = -4$$ yields no mathematically valid solutions within the set of real numbers.
Reason (R): The square of any real number is non-negative, and the arithmetic sum of two non-negative numbers cannot yield a negative sum.
A) A is true but R is false
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
D) A is false but R is true
Explanation:
The square of real numbers $$x$$ and $$y$$ must be $$\ge 0$$. Consequently, their sum $$x^2 + y^2 \ge 0$$. It is logically impossible for their sum to equal $$-4$$, directly proving the assertion based strictly on the provided reason.
Question 4 Unattempted
Consider the following statements concerning the historical and cultural heritage of Jammu and Kashmir:

I. Lal Ded, also known as Lalleshwari, is remembered for her Kashmiri mystic poetry, particularly her Vakhs.
II. The Martand Sun Temple is associated with the reign of Lalitaditya Muktapida.
III. The ancient temple complex at Awantipora is associated with King Avantivarman.
IV. Pari Mahal was constructed by Sultan Zain-ul-Abidin during the fifteenth century.

Which of the statements are correct?
A) II, III and IV only
B) I, II and III only
C) I and II only
D) I, II, III and IV
Explanation:
Statements I, II and III are correct. Lal Ded, or Lalleshwari, is an important figure in Kashmir's spiritual and literary traditions, remembered for her Vakhs. The Martand Sun Temple is associated with the eighth-century ruler Lalitaditya Muktapida, while the temple complex at Awantipora is associated with the ninth-century ruler Avantivarman. Statement IV is incorrect: Pari Mahal is a Mughal-era monument associated with Dara Shikoh, the son of Shah Jahan, and dates to the seventeenth century. These associations are useful for questions linking historical places with rulers, personalities and cultural contributions.
Question 5 Unattempted
What is the most precise synonym for the word 'PERSPICACIOUS'?
A) Tenacious
B) Lugubrious
C) Sagacious
D) Capricious
Explanation:
'Perspicacious' means having a ready insight into and understanding of things (astute, perceptive). 'Sagacious' (having or showing keen mental discernment and good judgment) is the closest synonym. 'Lugubrious' means sad, 'tenacious' means persistent, and 'capricious' means fickle.
Question 6 Unattempted
Identify the type of subordinate clause italicized in the following sentence: '*That the tectonic plates are constantly shifting* is a fundamental tenet of modern geology.'
A) Noun Clause
B) Adjective Clause
C) Relative Clause
D) Adverbial Clause of Reason
Explanation:
The italicized clause functions as the subject of the main verb 'is'. Clauses that function as a subject, object, or complement of a verb are Noun Clauses.
Question 7 Unattempted
In a highly complex cryptographic rule, the word **ALGORITHM** is coded as **PHMBSNIUJ**. By applying the exact same shifting logic, deduce the code for the word **HEURISTIC**.
A) $$RVFIJDJUT$$
B) $$SVFJKDJUT$$
C) $$SVEIJDJUT$$
D) $$SVFIJDJUT$$
Explanation:
The logic splits the 9-letter word into two 4-letter halves around the central letter, reverses each half, and shifts every letter forward by +1 alphabetical position.
ALGO|R|ITHM -> OGLA|R|MHTI -> (+1) -> PHMB|S|NIUJ.
HEUR|I|STIC -> RUEH|I|CITS -> (+1) -> SVFI|J|DJUT.
Question 8 Unattempted
A sum of money invested at compound interest, compounded annually, aggregates to $$\text{Rs. } 6,000$$ in $$3 \text{ years}$$ and to $$\text{Rs. } 7,200$$ in $$6 \text{ years}$$. Determine the original principal sum.
A) $$\text{Rs. } 5,500$$
B) $$\text{Rs. } 5,000$$
C) $$\text{Rs. } 4,500$$
D) $$\text{Rs. } 4,000$$
Explanation:
Let Principal be $$P$$. We have $$P(1+r)^3 = 6000$$ and $$P(1+r)^6 = 7200$$. Dividing the two equations yields $$(1+r)^3 = \frac{7200}{6000} = 1.2$$. Substituting back into the first equation: $$P(1.2) = 6000 \implies P = 5000$$.
Question 9 Unattempted
Using combinatorics and prime factorization principles, ascertain the exact number of trailing zeros at the end of the evaluated integer $$100!$$ (100 factorial).
A) $$28$$
B) $$20$$
C) $$24$$
D) $$25$$
Explanation:
Trailing zeros are generated by pairs of factors 2 and 5. Since 2s are abundant, the count is bottlenecked strictly by the number of 5s. Using Legendre's formula: count of 5s = $$\lfloor \frac{100}{5} \rfloor + \lfloor \frac{100}{25} \rfloor = 20 + 4 = 24$$. Therefore, there are exactly 24 trailing zeros.
Question 10 Unattempted
Find the remainder when the sum $$10^{10} + 10^{100} + 10^{1000} + \dots + 10^{10^{10}}$$ is divided by $$7$$.
A) $$5$$
B) $$6$$
C) $$2$$
D) $$4$$
Explanation:
We know that $$10 \equiv 3 \pmod 7$$. The powers of 10 modulo 7 repeat in a cycle of 6: $$10^1 \equiv 3$$, $$10^2 \equiv 2$$, $$10^3 \equiv 6$$, $$10^4 \equiv 4$$, $$10^5 \equiv 5$$, $$10^6 \equiv 1$$. Since $$10^k \equiv 4 \pmod 6$$ for all $$k \ge 1$$, it follows that $$10^{10^k} \equiv 10^4 \equiv 4 \pmod 7$$. There are 10 terms in the given series. Sum $$\equiv 10 \times 4 = 40 \equiv 5 \pmod 7$$.
Question 11 Unattempted
Which of the following accurately describes the relationship between an operating system, device drivers and application software?
A) Application software must execute directly on physical hardware without using operating-system services.
B) Device drivers replace the operating system and directly manage every application.
C) An operating system is a type of application software used exclusively to create documents.
D) The operating system manages system resources, while device drivers enable communication with particular hardware devices.
Explanation:
The operating system manages processes, memory, files, devices and other system resources. Device drivers provide the software interface needed for the operating system to communicate with specific hardware. Application software, such as a word processor, typically relies on operating-system services rather than directly managing all physical hardware.
Question 12 Unattempted
A shopkeeper cunningly marks up his goods by $$x\%$$ above the cost price and subsequently offers a discount of $$\frac{x}{2}\%$$. If his final net profit is exactly $$8\%$$, what is the numerical value of $$x$$?
A) $$30$$
B) $$25$$
C) $$15$$
D) $$20$$
Explanation:
Let Cost Price = 100. Marked Price = $$100 + x$$. Selling Price = $$(100+x)\left(1 - \frac{x}{200}\right) = 108$$. Solving $$(100+x)(200-x) = 21600$$ gives $$20000 + 100x - x^2 = 21600$$, or $$x^2 - 100x + 1600 = 0$$. The roots are $$20$$ and $$80$$. From the options, $$20$$ is the answer.
Question 13 Unattempted
Identify the relationship in the following analogy and select the pair that best mirrors it.
DIRGE : MOURNING ::
A) Elegy : Celebration
B) Ballad : Apathy
C) Sonnet : Defiance
D) Paean : Praise
Explanation:
A 'dirge' is a song or hymn expressing 'mourning' or grief. A 'paean' is a song or lyric expressing triumph or 'praise'. Both are specific types of compositions directly linked to the emotion/action they express.
Question 14 Unattempted
Consider the following statements concerning e-mail protocols and Internet security:

I. SMTP is primarily used for sending or relaying e-mail messages.
II. IMAP allows messages to be managed across a mail server and multiple synchronised devices.
III. HTTPS uses TLS to help protect data exchanged between a browser and a website.
IV. BCC recipients are ordinarily visible to every recipient in the To and CC fields.

Which statements are correct?
A) II, III and IV only
B) I and II only
C) I, II, III and IV
D) I, II and III only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and III are correct. SMTP is used for sending and relaying e-mail, IMAP supports synchronised access to messages stored on a mail server, and HTTPS uses TLS to protect the connection. Statement IV is incorrect because BCC recipients are normally concealed from other recipients, including those in the To and CC fields.
Question 15 Unattempted
Match the classic books with their respective authors:
List - I (Book) List - II (Author)
i. The Argumentative Indian 1. Shashi Tharoor
ii. An Era of Darkness 2. Amartya Sen
iii. The Discovery of India 3. R.K. Narayan
iv. The Guide 4. Jawaharlal Nehru
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
B) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
C) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
D) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Explanation:
'The Argumentative Indian' was written by Amartya Sen, 'An Era of Darkness' by Shashi Tharoor, 'The Discovery of India' by Jawaharlal Nehru, and 'The Guide' by R.K. Narayan.
Question 16 Unattempted
Identify the clause type of the underlined portion: The professor stipulated that *whoever wishes to pass the advanced seminar* must submit a forty-page dissertation.
A) Noun Clause acting as the subject of 'must submit'
B) Adjective Clause modifying 'seminar'
C) Adverbial Clause of Condition
D) Noun Clause acting as the object of 'stipulated'
Explanation:
The clause 'whoever wishes to pass the advanced seminar' functions as the subject for the verb phrase 'must submit'. The entire 'that' clause (which contains this subject) acts as the object of 'stipulated'.
Question 17 Unattempted
Study the following table showing major hydroelectric projects associated with Jammu and Kashmir:
ProjectRiverDistrict
I. SalalChenabReasi
II. DulhastiChenabKishtwar
III. KishangangaJhelumGanderbal
IV. RatleChenabKishtwar
Which of the above project–river–district combinations are correctly matched?
A) I, II and IV only
B) I and III only
C) II and III only
D) I, II, III and IV
Explanation:
Combinations I, II and IV are correct. The Salal Hydroelectric Project is on the Chenab River in the Reasi region. Dulhasti is a Chenab-based project in Kishtwar, and the Ratle Hydroelectric Project is also located on the Chenab in Kishtwar. Combination III is incorrect because the Kishanganga Hydroelectric Project is situated on the Kishanganga River, a tributary of the Jhelum, in Bandipora district—not on the main Jhelum in Ganderbal. Hydroelectric projects can support regional economic development through electricity generation, infrastructure investment and employment, although their benefits depend on implementation and local impacts.
Question 18 Unattempted
Match the prestigious literary awards with the organizations that sponsor or grant them:
List - I (Award) List - II (Organization)
i. Booker Prize 1. K.K. Birla Foundation
ii. Saraswati Samman 2. Crankstart
iii. Jnanpith Award 3. Sahitya Akademi
iv. Sahitya Akademi Award 4. Bharatiya Jnanpith
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
B) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
C) i-4, ii-3, iii-2, iv-1
D) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Explanation:
The Booker Prize is sponsored by Crankstart. Saraswati Samman is awarded by the K.K. Birla Foundation. Jnanpith is awarded by Bharatiya Jnanpith, and the Sahitya Akademi Award is given by the Sahitya Akademi.
Question 19 Unattempted
A drone deployed at the origin $$(0,0)$$ flies $$10 \text{ km}$$ North, then executes a $$120^\circ$$ clockwise turn to fly $$20 \text{ km}$$. It then executes a $$90^\circ$$ counter-clockwise turn and flies $$10\sqrt{3} \text{ km}$$. What is the direct straight-line distance of the drone from the origin?
A) $$25 \text{ km}$$
B) $$40 \text{ km}$$
C) $$20 \text{ km}$$
D) $$30 \text{ km}$$
Explanation:
Vector analysis: 1st leg is $$(0, 10)$$. The $$120^\circ$$ CW turn points to Azimuth $$120^\circ$$ (SE). Displacement is $$(20\sin 120^\circ, 20\cos 120^\circ) = (10\sqrt{3}, -10)$$. Position = $$(10\sqrt{3}, 0)$$. The $$90^\circ$$ CCW turn points to Azimuth $$30^\circ$$ (NE). Displacement is $$(10\sqrt{3}\sin 30^\circ, 10\sqrt{3}\cos 30^\circ) = (5\sqrt{3}, 15)$$. Final position = $$(15\sqrt{3}, 15)$$. Distance = $$\sqrt{(15\sqrt{3})^2 + 15^2} = \sqrt{675 + 225} = 30 \text{ km}$$.
Question 20 Unattempted
Define a function $$f(x) = \frac{4^x}{4^x + 2}$$. Compute the exact value of the summation series: $$\sum_{k=1}^{99} f\left(\frac{k}{100}\right)$$.
A) $$49$$
B) $$50$$
C) $$50.5$$
D) $$49.5$$
Explanation:
Evaluate $$f(x) + f(1-x) = \frac{4^x}{4^x+2} + \frac{4^{1-x}}{4^{1-x}+2} = 1$$. The terms in the summation pair up symmetrically: $$f(1/100) + f(99/100) = 1$$. There are 49 such pairs. The middle term $$f(50/100) = f(1/2) = \frac{\sqrt{4}}{\sqrt{4}+2} = \frac{1}{2}$$. Total sum = $$49 + 0.5 = 49.5$$.
Question 21 Unattempted
The average weight of $$N$$ students is $$W \text{ kg}$$. If 4 students averaging $$(W+2) \text{ kg}$$ join, the average becomes $$(W+0.4) \text{ kg}$$. If instead 2 students averaging $$(W-3) \text{ kg}$$ leave the original class, the average becomes $$(W+P) \text{ kg}$$. Find the precise value of $$P$$.
A) $$\frac{4}{7}$$
B) $$\frac{5}{7}$$
C) $$\frac{3}{7}$$
D) $$\frac{2}{7}$$
Explanation:
From the first condition: The total weight increase is $$4 \times 2 = 8$$, spread over $$(N+4)$$ students. So, $$\frac{8}{N+4} = 0.4 \implies N=16$$. In the second scenario, removing 2 students who are $$3 \text{ kg}$$ lighter than average leaves a surplus of $$6 \text{ kg}$$ for the remaining $$14$$ students. Thus, $$P = \frac{6}{14} = \frac{3}{7}$$.
Question 22 Unattempted
Consider the following statements about Classical Languages in India:
1. The criteria include high antiquity of early texts/recorded history over a period of 1500-2000 years.
2. Malayalam and Odia are recognized as classical languages.
3. The linguistic tradition must be original and not borrowed from another speech community.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
All statements are correct. Malayalam (2013) and Odia (2014) are Classical languages. The strict criteria listed are officially mandated by the Government of India.
Question 23 Unattempted
Consider the following statements about the Jammu–Srinagar Vande Bharat Express developments announced in April 2026:

I. On 30 April 2026, the extended service was flagged off from Jammu Tawi, extending the service beyond Shri Mata Vaishno Devi Katra.
II. The train's capacity was augmented from 8 coaches to 20 coaches.
III. Regular commercial services were scheduled to commence on 30 April 2026 itself, with no separate start date.

Which statements are correct?
A) II and III only
B) I only
C) I and II only
D) I, II and III
Explanation:
Statements I and II are correct. The Ministry of Railways announced the extended Jammu–Srinagar Vande Bharat service up to Jammu Tawi on 30 April 2026 and reported that the train had been augmented from 8 to 20 coaches. Statement III is incorrect because regular services were announced to commence from 2 May 2026; the flag-off date and the regular-service start date were different. The extension is significant for passenger connectivity, tourism, trade and travel between Jammu and the Kashmir Valley. Official source: Press Information Bureau, Ministry of Railways, 30 April 2026: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2256953&lang=1&reg=44
Question 24 Unattempted
In MS Word, consider the following statements about document formatting and editing:

I. Ctrl+H generally opens the Find and Replace interface.
II. A page break and a section break always perform exactly the same function.
III. Mail Merge can combine a main document with a data source to generate personalised letters or labels.
IV. Track Changes can record insertions and deletions made during document editing.

Which statements are correct?
A) II and III only
B) I, II, III and IV
C) I, III and IV only
D) I and II only
Explanation:
Statements I, III and IV are correct. Ctrl+H opens Find and Replace in standard desktop versions of Word. Mail Merge combines a main document with recipient data to produce personalised outputs. Track Changes records editing revisions for review. Statement II is incorrect: a page break moves subsequent content to a new page, whereas a section break can also create a new section with independent layout or formatting settings.
Question 25 Unattempted
Analyze the underlying logic in the number series to identify the missing term: $$2, 12, 36, 80, 150, \ ?$$
A) $$294$$
B) $$252$$
C) $$240$$
D) $$216$$
Explanation:
The sequence follows the pattern $$n^3 + n^2$$ for $$n=1, 2, 3, \dots$$ For $$n=1$$: $$1^3+1^2 = 2$$ For $$n=5$$: $$5^3+5^2 = 150$$.
The next term for $$n=6$$ is $$6^3 + 6^2 = 216 + 36 = 252$$.
Question 26 Unattempted
Consider the following statements regarding total internal reflection:
1. The light must travel from an optically denser medium to an optically rarer medium.
2. The angle of incidence must be strictly less than the critical angle for the given pair of media.
3. Modern optical fibers transmit data based primarily on this principle.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
For total internal reflection to occur, the angle of incidence must be GREATER than the critical angle, not less. Statements 1 and 3 correctly describe the phenomenon and its application in optical fibers.
Question 27 Unattempted
With reference to railway infrastructure in Jammu and Kashmir, consider the following statements:

I. USBRL stands for the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link.
II. The Chenab railway bridge is a steel arch bridge constructed across the Chenab River.
III. Anji Khad Bridge is recognised as India's first cable-stayed railway bridge.
IV. The Chenab railway bridge and Anji Khad Bridge are both classified as cable-stayed railway bridges.

Which statements are correct?
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and III only
C) I and III only
D) II and IV only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and III are correct. USBRL refers to the Udhampur–Srinagar–Baramulla Rail Link, a major rail connectivity project intended to connect the Kashmir Valley with the wider Indian railway network. The Chenab railway bridge is a steel arch bridge, while Anji Khad is India's first cable-stayed railway bridge. Statement IV is incorrect because the two bridges use different structural designs. Both projects are important for regional connectivity, tourism, passenger movement and the movement of goods.
Question 28 Unattempted
Select the correct sequence of tenses to complete the sentence: 'Hardly ___ the perimeter of the heavily guarded facility when the perimeter alarms ___ to wail uncontrollably.'
A) did he breach, had begun
B) had he breached, had begun
C) he had breached, began
D) had he breached, began
Explanation:
When a sentence begins with a negative adverbial like 'Hardly', 'Scarcely', or 'No sooner', it triggers subject-verb inversion (had he breached). The subsequent clause indicating the immediate past action uses the simple past tense (began).
Question 29 Unattempted
Match the specialized sports terms with their corresponding games:
List - I (Term) List - II (Game)
i. Chukker 1. Golf
ii. Albatross 2. Polo
iii. Gambit 3. Baseball
iv. Diamond 4. Chess
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
B) i-4, ii-1, iii-2, iv-3
C) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
D) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
Explanation:
A 'Chukker' is a period of play in Polo. 'Albatross' is a scoring term in Golf. 'Gambit' is an opening sacrifice in Chess. The playing field in Baseball is known as a 'Diamond'.
Question 30 Unattempted
A solid metallic cone having a base radius of $$6 \text{ cm}$$ and a height of $$30 \text{ cm}$$ is completely melted and recast to form a solid hemisphere and a solid right circular cylinder. The base radius of both the hemisphere and the cylinder are identical, and the height of the cylinder is explicitly equal to its base radius. Find this common radius.
A) $$4 \text{ cm}$$
B) $$5 \text{ cm}$$
C) $$8 \text{ cm}$$
D) $$6 \text{ cm}$$
Explanation:
Volume of the cone = $$\frac{1}{3}\pi(6^2)(30) = 360\pi$$. Let the common radius be $$R$$. The volume of the hemisphere is $$\frac{2}{3}\pi R^3$$ and the cylinder is $$\pi R^2(R) = \pi R^3$$. Total volume = $$\frac{5}{3}\pi R^3 = 360\pi$$. Solving gives $$R^3 = 216 \implies R = 6 \text{ cm}$$.
Question 31 Unattempted
Who holds the distinction of being the first person in the world to reach both the North and South Poles?
A) Robert Peary
B) Roald Amundsen
C) Ranulph Fiennes
D) Richard Weber
Explanation:
Roald Amundsen, a Norwegian explorer, was the first person to reach the South Pole in 1911 and also unambiguously reached the North Pole via airship in 1926.
Question 32 Unattempted
Consider the following statements regarding the August Offer (1940):
1. It proposed the establishment of an advisory war council.
2. It explicitly promised complete independence to India after the war.
3. It recognized the right of Indians to frame their own constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
The August Offer proposed a representative constitution-making body and an advisory war council, but it offered 'Dominion Status', not complete independence. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
Question 33 Unattempted
Which prominent historical figure was affectionately known by the sobriquet 'Frontier Gandhi' due to his close association with Mahatma Gandhi and his strict adherence to non-violent resistance?
A) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
B) Lala Lajpat Rai
C) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
D) C. Rajagopalachari
Explanation:
Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan, a Pashtun independence activist who founded the Khudai Khidmatgar movement, was widely known as 'Frontier Gandhi' (Bacha Khan).
Question 34 Unattempted
Consider the following statements about the climate, soils and crops of the Kashmir Valley:

I. Karewas are elevated deposits associated with the lacustrine history of the Kashmir Valley.
II. The Karewa terrain around Pampore is particularly associated with saffron cultivation.
III. Western disturbances are an important source of winter precipitation in the Kashmir region.
IV. Saffron is chiefly harvested during late spring and early summer in Kashmir.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and III only
C) II and III only
D) I and IV only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and III are correct. Karewas are deposits associated with ancient lake environments in the Kashmir Valley. Their soil and drainage conditions, especially in the Pampore area, support saffron cultivation. Western disturbances bring a substantial share of the region's winter precipitation, including snowfall at higher elevations. Statement IV is incorrect because Kashmir saffron is generally harvested in autumn, particularly during October and November, rather than in late spring or early summer.
Question 35 Unattempted
Match the 'First in India' personalities with their historic achievements:
List - I (Personality) List - II (Achievement)
i. Mihir Sen 1. First Indian to swim the English Channel
ii. K.D. Jadhav 2. First Indian to win an individual Olympic medal
iii. Phu Dorjee 3. First Indian to climb Everest without oxygen
iv. J.R.D. Tata 4. First Indian commercial pilot
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
B) i-1, ii-3, iii-2, iv-4
C) i-4, ii-2, iii-3, iv-1
D) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
Explanation:
Mihir Sen was the first to swim the English Channel, K.D. Jadhav won the first individual Olympic medal (wrestling), Phu Dorjee scaled Everest without oxygen, and J.R.D. Tata obtained the first commercial pilot license in India.
Question 36 Unattempted
Fill in the blank with the appropriate preposition: 'The newly appointed director decided to dispense ___ the archaic filing system, opting instead for a fully digitized cloud database.'
A) with
B) from
C) off
D) of
Explanation:
The phrasal verb 'dispense with' means to get rid of, do away with, or manage without something. 'Dispense of' or 'dispense off' are grammatically incorrect in this context.
Question 37 Unattempted
Which of the following geographic straits connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and the Arabian Sea, serving as one of the world's most strategically vital maritime choke points for crude oil transit?
A) Strait of Malacca
B) Bab el-Mandeb
C) Strait of Hormuz
D) Bosporus Strait
Explanation:
The Strait of Hormuz is the only sea passage from the Persian Gulf to the open ocean, making it one of the world's most strategically important choke points.
Question 38 Unattempted
A farmer observes his livestock comprising hens and cows. He counts a total of $$48$$ heads and $$140$$ feet. Utilizing mental arithmetical deduction, identify the exact number of hens.
A) $$28$$
B) $$24$$
C) $$22$$
D) $$26$$
Explanation:
Let $$H$$ be hens and $$C$$ be cows. System of equations: $$H + C = 48$$ and $$2H + 4C = 140$$. Dividing the second by 2 gives $$H + 2C = 70$$. Subtracting the first equation from this result gives $$C = 22$$. Hence, $$H = 48 - 22 = 26$$ hens.
Question 39 Unattempted
Choose the correctly punctuated sentence from the options provided.
A) The committee having deliberated for hours reached a consensus: however, the chairman vetoed it.
B) The committee, having deliberated for hours reached a consensus; however, the chairman vetoed it.
C) The committee having deliberated for hours, reached a consensus, however the chairman vetoed it.
D) The committee, having deliberated for hours, reached a consensus; however, the chairman vetoed it.
Explanation:
The phrase 'having deliberated for hours' is a non-restrictive participial phrase and must be enclosed in commas. The conjunctive adverb 'however' joining two independent clauses must be preceded by a semicolon and followed by a comma.
Question 40 Unattempted
An algorithmic data arranger processes numeric arrays. In Step 1, it identifies the largest number and swaps it to the 1st position. In Step 2, the 2nd largest moves to the 2nd position, pushing others rightward, and so on. If Step 2 of an array is $$94 \ 85 \ 32 \ 16 \ 73 \ 48$$, determine the configuration at Step 4.
A) $$94 \ 85 \ 73 \ 32 \ 16 \ 48$$
B) $$94 \ 85 \ 73 \ 48 \ 32 \ 16$$
C) Cannot be determined
D) $$94 \ 85 \ 73 \ 48 \ 16 \ 32$$
Explanation:
In Step 2, the top 2 numbers (94, 85) are already placed. For Step 3, the 3rd largest (73) moves to the 3rd spot: $$94 \ 85 \ 73 \ 32 \ 16 \ 48$$. For Step 4, the 4th largest (48) is moved to the 4th spot: $$94 \ 85 \ 73 \ 48 \ 32 \ 16$$.
Question 41 Unattempted
With reference to Indian agriculture, consider the following statements regarding the 'System of Rice Intensification' (SRI):
1. It requires continuous flooding of the rice field throughout the growing season.
2. It drastically reduces the seed requirement compared to traditional methods.
3. It utilizes significantly younger seedlings for transplantation.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
SRI involves keeping the soil moist but NOT continuously flooded, thereby saving significant amounts of water. It reduces seed requirements and uses very young seedlings (8-12 days old).
Question 42 Unattempted
Which of the following sentences correctly utilizes the subjunctive mood?
A) It is imperative that the ambassador arrive at the summit before the treaty is signed.
B) If I was the manager, I would immediately reform the appraisal system.
C) The legal counsel recommended that the defendant pleads guilty to the lesser charges.
D) He acts as if he is the sole authority on macroeconomic policy.
Explanation:
The subjunctive mood for expressing a command, recommendation, or necessity uses the base form of the verb. Thus, 'that the ambassador arrive' (not 'arrives') is correct. Options A and D should use 'were', and Option B should use 'plead'.
Question 43 Unattempted
With reference to the Right to Information Act, 2005, consider the following statements, which also apply to public authorities in the Union Territory of Jammu and Kashmir:

I. An ordinary RTI request is generally required to be answered within 30 days of receipt.
II. Information concerning the life or liberty of a person must be provided within 48 hours of receipt of the request.
III. When an application is transferred to another public authority under Section 6(3), the transfer must be made as soon as practicable and no later than five days from receipt.
IV. A Public Information Officer may reject a request without communicating the reasons for rejection or the applicant's appeal rights.

Which of the statements are correct?
A) I, II and III only
B) I and II only
C) I, III and IV only
D) II, III and IV only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and III are correct. Under Section 7(1) of the RTI Act, the normal response period is 30 days; requests concerning life or liberty must be answered within 48 hours. Section 6(3) requires a qualifying transfer to another public authority as soon as practicable and, in any case, within five days of receipt. Statement IV is incorrect because Section 7(8) requires the applicant to be informed of the reasons for rejection, the period for appeal and the details of the appellate authority. The central RTI Act, 2005 applies in Jammu and Kashmir following the 2019 constitutional and statutory changes.
Question 44 Unattempted
The concept of 'Contract Farming' in India, intended to seamlessly integrate agriculture with industrialization, primarily operated under the legal framework provided by which piece of legislation historically before recent reforms?
A) Land Acquisition Act
B) Essential Commodities Act
C) National Food Security Act
D) APMC (Agricultural Produce Market Committee) Acts of respective states
Explanation:
Agriculture being a state subject, contract farming has traditionally been regulated by the various state APMC Acts, which dictate how and to whom agricultural produce can be bought and sold.
Question 45 Unattempted
The India–United Kingdom Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) became a major trade-policy development in 2026. Consider the following statements:

I. The India–UK CETA entered into force on 15 July 2026.
II. Under the agreement, nearly 99% of India's exports to the UK receive zero-duty access, subject to the applicable agreement provisions.
III. India eliminated all tariffs on every UK product, including sensitive agricultural products such as dairy, cereals and pulses, without any safeguards.

Which statements are correct?
A) I only
B) I and II only
C) I, II and III
D) II and III only
Explanation:
Statements I and II are correct. The India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement entered into force on 15 July 2026 and provides zero-duty access for nearly 99% of India's exports to the UK. Statement III is incorrect: India's commitments involve calibrated tariff liberalisation, with sensitive sectors such as dairy, cereals and pulses safeguarded rather than all products being opened without exception. CETA is relevant to trade, industrialisation, export competitiveness, employment and the growth of India's goods and services sectors. Official source: Press Information Bureau, Ministry of Commerce and Industry, 15 July 2026: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2285085&lang=1&reg=48
Question 46 Unattempted
Match the chemical compounds with their common everyday names:
List - I (Chemical) List - II (Common Name)
i. Sodium Bicarbonate 1. Washing Soda
ii. Sodium Carbonate 2. Baking Soda
iii. Calcium hypochlorite 3. Bleaching Powder
iv. Calcium sulphate hemihydrate 4. Plaster of Paris
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
B) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
C) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
D) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
Explanation:
Sodium Bicarbonate is Baking Soda, Sodium Carbonate is Washing Soda, Calcium hypochlorite is Bleaching Powder, and Calcium sulphate hemihydrate is Plaster of Paris.
Question 47 Unattempted
Agriculture-based industrialisation can create backward and forward linkages in Jammu and Kashmir's economy. Consider the following statements:

I. Nurseries, fertiliser suppliers and farm-machinery providers are examples of backward linkages for horticulture.
II. Fruit grading, cold storage, juice processing, packaging and organised retail are examples of forward linkages.
III. Food processing and improved storage can reduce post-harvest losses and increase value addition.
IV. Establishing agro-processing industries automatically eliminates seasonal price fluctuations and guarantees higher profits for every farmer.

Which statements are correct?
A) I, II and III only
B) I, III and IV only
C) I and II only
D) II, III and IV only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and III are correct. Backward linkages supply goods and services needed for agricultural production, such as saplings, fertilisers, machinery and other farm inputs. Forward linkages connect farm output to subsequent activities such as grading, storage, processing, packaging, transportation and marketing. These activities can reduce wastage, extend shelf life, improve market access and generate employment beyond cultivation. Statement IV is incorrect because processing alone cannot guarantee profits or eliminate price fluctuations; outcomes also depend on demand, infrastructure, input costs, market access and the distribution of value among farmers and other participants.
Question 48 Unattempted
Match the major Indian rivers with their principal tributaries:
List - I (River) List - II (Tributary)
i. Godavari 1. Tungabhadra
ii. Krishna 2. Pranhita
iii. Yamuna 3. Betwa
iv. Brahmaputra 4. Subansiri
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
B) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
C) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
D) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
Explanation:
Pranhita is the largest tributary of the Godavari. Tungabhadra flows into the Krishna. Betwa merges into the Yamuna. Subansiri is a massive tributary of the Brahmaputra.
Question 49 Unattempted
Which sentence exhibits flawless punctuation regarding compound modifiers and possessives?
A) The secretary-general's sudden resignation left the thirty member-council in complete disarray.
B) The secretary-generals' sudden resignation left the thirty-member council in complete disarray.
C) The secretary-general's sudden resignation left the thirty-member council in complete disarray.
D) The secretary-generals sudden resignation left the thirty member council in complete disarray.
Explanation:
The possessive of the singular compound noun 'secretary-general' is 'secretary-general's'. The phrase 'thirty-member' acts as a single compound adjective modifying 'council' and thus requires a hyphen.
Question 50 Unattempted
Determine the meaning of the idiom in the sentence: 'By refusing to compromise on the budget, the striking workers realized they had finally crossed the Rubicon.'
A) Engaged in a futile and endless argument
B) Achieved an unexpected financial victory
C) Betrayed their most loyal supporters
D) Passed a point of no return
Explanation:
'Crossing the Rubicon' is an idiom that means to take a decisive, irrevocable step that commits one to a specific course of action, originating from Julius Caesar's crossing of the Rubicon river in 49 BC.
Question 51 Unattempted
Regarding the UN Security Council (UNSC) veto power, consider the following:
1. A veto cast by a permanent member prevents the adoption of a substantive draft resolution.
2. A permanent member's abstention from voting is officially counted as a veto.
3. Veto power cannot be used to block the admission of a new member state to the UN.
Which of the statements is/are incorrect?
A) 1, 2, and 3
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1 only
Explanation:
An abstention does not count as a veto; a resolution can still pass if a P5 member abstains. The veto power CAN be used to block the admission of a new member state. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.
Question 52 Unattempted
Extrapolate the next logical grouping in the alphanumeric series: $$C3X, \ F8U, \ J15Q, \ O24L, \ ?$$
A) $$T35F$$
B) $$U35F$$
C) $$U36E$$
D) $$V34G$$
Explanation:
1st letter shifts by +3, +4, +5, +6: O(+6) = U.
The number follows differences of 5, 7, 9, 11: 24+11 = 35.
3rd letter shifts by -3, -4, -5, -6: L(-6) = F.
The resulting term is U35F.
Question 53 Unattempted
Match the African nations with their respective capitals and currencies:
List - I (Country) List - II (Capital & Currency)
i. Rwanda 1. Rabat, Dirham
ii. Morocco 2. Kigali, Franc
iii. Kenya 3. Nairobi, Shilling
iv. Nigeria 4. Abuja, Naira
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-2, ii-3, iii-1, iv-4
B) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
C) i-1, ii-2, iii-4, iv-3
D) i-2, ii-1, iii-3, iv-4
Explanation:
Rwanda uses the Franc (Capital: Kigali), Morocco uses the Dirham (Capital: Rabat), Kenya uses the Shilling (Capital: Nairobi), and Nigeria uses the Naira (Capital: Abuja).
Question 54 Unattempted
Given the proportional relation $$\frac{x}{y+z-x} = \frac{y}{z+x-y} = \frac{z}{x+y-z} = k$$, where $$x, y, z$$ are non-zero real numbers. Calculate the sum of all mathematically possible values of $$k$$.
A) $$\frac{3}{2}$$
B) $$-\frac{1}{2}$$
C) $$\frac{1}{2}$$
D) $$1$$
Explanation:
Case 1: $$x+y+z \neq 0$$. By adding numerators and denominators, $$k = \frac{x+y+z}{x+y+z} = 1$$. Case 2: $$x+y+z = 0$$, so $$y+z = -x$$. Substituting this into the first fraction gives $$k = \frac{x}{-x-x} = -\frac{1}{2}$$. Sum of possible values = $$1 - \frac{1}{2} = \frac{1}{2}$$.
Question 55 Unattempted
In the Indian Parliamentary system, what is the primary function of the 'Estimates Committee'?
A) To ensure that funds voted by Parliament are spent strictly within the scope of the demand
B) To adjudicate financial disputes between the center and states regarding tax devolution
C) To examine the audit reports submitted by the Comptroller and Auditor General
D) To suggest alternative policies to bring about efficiency and economy in administration
Explanation:
The Estimates Committee examines the estimates included in the budget and suggests 'economies' in public expenditure. The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) examines CAG reports to ensure funds were spent as allocated.
Question 56 Unattempted
Which of the following sequences correctly traces the Jhelum River's course through the Kashmir Valley from its source towards the downstream exit from the Valley?
A) Verinag → Anantnag → Srinagar → Wular Lake → Baramulla → Uri
B) Verinag → Anantnag → Wular Lake → Srinagar → Baramulla → Uri
C) Verinag → Anantnag → Srinagar → Baramulla → Wular Lake → Uri
D) Verinag → Srinagar → Anantnag → Wular Lake → Baramulla → Uri
Explanation:
The correct sequence is Verinag → Anantnag → Srinagar → Wular Lake → Baramulla → Uri. The Jhelum originates at the Verinag spring in the southeastern Kashmir Valley, flows through the Anantnag area and Srinagar, and then passes through the Wular Lake system before continuing through Baramulla towards Uri. Remember that Wular Lake is closely connected with the Jhelum's drainage system, making this river–lake relationship important for questions on Kashmir's physical geography.
Question 57 Unattempted
Convert the recurring decimal fraction $$0.34\overline{56}$$ into its simplest rational form $$\frac{p}{q}$$ where $$\gcd(p,q)=1$$. Calculate the difference $$q - p$$.
A) $$3339$$
B) $$3139$$
C) $$3239$$
D) $$3439$$
Explanation:
$$0.34\overline{56} = \frac{3456 - 34}{9900} = \frac{3422}{9900}$$. Reducing by 2 gives $$\frac{1711}{4950}$$. Since 1711 and 4950 share no common prime factors (coprime), $$p = 1711$$ and $$q = 4950$$. The difference $$q - p = 4950 - 1711 = 3239$$.
Question 58 Unattempted
Match the Centrally Sponsored Schemes with their primary developmental objectives:
List - I (Scheme) List - II (Objective)
i. MGNREGA 1. Universal household electrification
ii. PMJAY (Ayushman Bharat) 2. Piped tap water supply to all rural households
iii. Jal Jeevan Mission 3. 100 days of guaranteed wage employment
iv. Saubhagya Scheme 4. Health insurance coverage of 5 lakhs per family
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-3, ii-4, iii-2, iv-1
B) i-4, ii-3, iii-1, iv-2
C) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
D) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
Explanation:
MGNREGA ensures 100 days of rural employment, PMJAY provides health insurance, Jal Jeevan Mission focuses on piped water (Har Ghar Jal), and the Saubhagya Scheme aimed for universal electrification.
Question 59 Unattempted
Consider the following statements about data units, number systems and storage:

I. One byte consists of eight bits.
II. In the binary system, the decimal number 13 is represented as 1101.
III. One kibibyte (KiB) equals 1,000 bytes.
IV. SSDs generally have no moving mechanical parts, unlike traditional hard disk drives.

Which statements are correct?
A) I, II, III and IV
B) I, II and IV only
C) I and II only
D) II and III only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and IV are correct. A byte contains eight bits. Decimal 13 equals 8 + 4 + 1, giving the binary representation 1101. A kibibyte (KiB) equals 1,024 bytes, whereas a kilobyte (kB) conventionally equals 1,000 bytes. SSDs use solid-state memory and generally lack the moving platters and mechanical read/write heads found in traditional HDDs.
Question 60 Unattempted
Two trains initiate their journeys simultaneously from stations A and B, heading towards each other. After their crossing point, they take exactly $$25 \text{ hours}$$ and $$9 \text{ hours}$$ to reach their respective destinations B and A. If the speed of the first train is $$54 \text{ km/hr}$$, what is the speed of the second train?
A) $$75 \text{ km/hr}$$
B) $$60 \text{ km/hr}$$
C) $$105 \text{ km/hr}$$
D) $$90 \text{ km/hr}$$
Explanation:
Using the relative speed formula for post-crossing times: $$\frac{S_1}{S_2} = \sqrt{\frac{T_2}{T_1}}$$. Substituting the values, $$\frac{54}{S_2} = \sqrt{\frac{9}{25}} = \frac{3}{5}$$. Therefore, $$S_2 = \frac{54 \times 5}{3} = 90 \text{ km/hr}$$.
Question 61 Unattempted
Identify the grammatical error in the use of articles in the following sentence: 'A highest peak in the Himalayan range, Mount Everest, is considered the ultimate test of human endurance.'
A) Replace 'A' with 'The'
B) Remove 'the' before ultimate
C) No error
D) Remove 'the' before Himalayan
Explanation:
Superlative adjectives (highest) must always be preceded by the definite article 'the', not the indefinite article 'a', because the superlative indicates a unique, specific extreme.
Question 62 Unattempted
Complete the sentence with the grammatically correct pronoun phrasing: 'Between you and ___, I highly doubt that the structural integrity of the bridge will withstand the impending hurricane.'
A) mine
B) I
C) myself
D) me
Explanation:
'Between' is a preposition, and prepositions must be followed by object pronouns. Therefore, 'Between you and me' is correct, not 'Between you and I' (subject pronoun).
Question 63 Unattempted
Consider the following statements regarding the Indus Waters Treaty, 1960:

I. The Treaty was signed on 19 September 1960 by Jawaharlal Nehru and Ayub Khan, with the World Bank playing a facilitating role.
II. The waters of the Eastern Rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej—are available for India's unrestricted use under the Treaty.
III. India is absolutely prohibited from constructing any hydroelectric project on the Western Rivers.
IV. The Treaty established a Permanent Indus Commission as an institutional mechanism for cooperation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?
A) I and II only
B) I, III and IV only
C) I, II and IV only
D) II, III and IV only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and IV are correct. The Indus Waters Treaty was signed on 19 September 1960 by Indian Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru and Pakistani President Ayub Khan, with the World Bank facilitating the negotiations. The Eastern Rivers—Ravi, Beas and Sutlej—were made available for India's unrestricted use under the Treaty. Statement III is incorrect because India is permitted specified uses of the Western Rivers, including certain hydroelectric projects, subject to the Treaty's conditions and design criteria. The Permanent Indus Commission was established to facilitate implementation and address questions arising under the Treaty.
Question 64 Unattempted
Study the following table showing MS Excel references and functions:
ItemDescription
I. $A$1Absolute reference
II. A$1Mixed reference with fixed row
III. $A1Mixed reference with fixed column
IV. COUNT(A1:A10)Counts all non-empty cells, including text
Which rows are correctly matched?
A) II and III only
B) I and IV only
C) I, II, III and IV
D) I, II and III only
Explanation:
Rows I, II and III are correct. $A$1 fixes both the column and row; A$1 fixes only the row; and $A1 fixes only the column. Statement IV is incorrect because COUNT counts cells containing numeric values, including dates and times stored numerically, rather than all non-empty cells. COUNTA counts non-empty cells.
Question 65 Unattempted
Fill in the blanks with the correct prepositions: 'The radical author took great exception ___ the critic's sweeping generalizations, arguing that the review was entirely repugnant ___ the core message of his manifesto.'
A) against, of
B) at, with
C) with, against
D) to, to
Explanation:
The idiom is 'to take exception TO' something (meaning to object to it). Furthermore, the adjective 'repugnant' is conventionally followed by the preposition 'to' (repugnant to).
Question 66 Unattempted
Consider the following statements about search engines and web technologies:

I. A search engine's crawler discovers or fetches web pages for processing.
II. Indexing involves organising information extracted from pages so it can be retrieved by searches.
III. Ranking determines the order in which results are presented for a particular query.
IV. Using the site: operator guarantees that every page on the specified website will appear in search results.

Which statements are correct?
A) I, II, III and IV
B) II, III and IV only
C) I, II and III only
D) I and II only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and III correctly describe the main stages of search engines: crawling, indexing and ranking. The site: operator can restrict a search to a specified domain or website, but it does not guarantee that every page will be indexed or returned. Search engines may omit pages because of crawling restrictions, duplicate content, quality considerations or other indexing and ranking factors.
Question 67 Unattempted
Consider the following statements about India's Foreign Trade:
1. A 'Current Account Deficit' (CAD) implies that the value of imported goods and services exceeds the value of exported goods and services.
2. The United Arab Emirates (UAE) was India's absolute largest export destination in the FY 2022-23.
3. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is recorded in the capital account of the Balance of Payments.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
The United States, not the UAE, was India's largest export destination in FY 2022-23. The definition of CAD is correct, and FDI is indeed a component of the capital (or financial) account.
Question 68 Unattempted
Consider the following statements regarding computer memory and storage:

I. SRAM does not require periodic refreshing, whereas DRAM requires periodic refreshing.
II. ROM is always impossible to modify under any circumstances.
III. Cache memory generally has lower access latency than main memory.
IV. Virtual memory allows an operating system to use secondary storage to extend the address space available to processes.

Which of the statements are correct?
A) I, III and IV only
B) I and II only
C) I, II, III and IV
D) II, III and IV only
Explanation:
Statements I, III and IV are correct. SRAM stores data without periodic refreshing, unlike DRAM. Cache memory is designed for faster access than ordinary main memory. Virtual memory uses secondary storage to support an address space larger than the available physical RAM. Statement II is incorrect because some ROM technologies, such as EEPROM and flash memory, can be erased and reprogrammed.
Question 69 Unattempted
Consider the following systemic characteristics:
1. Strict separation of powers between the executive and legislative branches.
2. The executive head is not directly accountable to the legislature.
3. The Head of State is identically the Head of Government.
These are the defining features of which form of government?
A) Semi-Presidential System
B) Presidential System
C) Constitutional Monarchy
D) Parliamentary System
Explanation:
These are the core tenets of a Presidential system (e.g., the United States), where the President operates independently of the legislature and serves as both Head of State and Government.
Question 70 Unattempted
Select the correct pair of homophones/homonyms to complete the sentence: 'The corrupt magistrate was universally despised for his ___ nature, often accepting bribes for what should have been a strictly ___ transgression.'
A) venial, venal
B) venal, venal
C) venial, venial
D) venal, venial
Explanation:
'Venal' means showing or motivated by susceptibility to bribery (corrupt). 'Venial' refers to a fault or offense that is slight and pardonable. Thus, a 'venal' nature accepting bribes for a 'venial' transgression.
Question 71 Unattempted
A user enters the formula =IF(AND(B2>=60,C2="Yes"),"Eligible","Not Eligible") in Excel. Which interpretation is correct?
A) The result is Eligible if either B2 is at least 60 or C2 contains Yes.
B) The result is Eligible only when B2 is at least 60 and C2 contains Yes.
C) The formula checks whether B2 and C2 contain identical values.
D) The result is Not Eligible whenever B2 is exactly 60.
Explanation:
AND returns TRUE only when both conditions are TRUE: B2 must be at least 60, and C2 must contain the text Yes. IF returns Eligible when that combined condition is TRUE; otherwise, it returns Not Eligible. The distinction between AND and OR is a common source of errors in spreadsheet-based examination questions.
Question 72 Unattempted
The angle of elevation of a stationary cloud from an observation point located $$h$$ meters above a lake's surface is $$\alpha$$, and the angle of depression of the cloud's reflection perfectly mirroring in the lake is $$\beta$$. What is the geometric height of the cloud above the lake?
A) $$h \frac{\tan \alpha + \tan \beta}{1 - \tan \alpha \tan \beta}$$
B) $$h \frac{\tan \beta + \tan \alpha}{\tan \beta - \tan \alpha}$$
C) $$h \frac{\tan \beta - \tan \alpha}{\tan \beta + \tan \alpha}$$
D) $$h \frac{\sin \beta + \sin \alpha}{\cos \beta - \cos \alpha}$$
Explanation:
Let $$H$$ be cloud height and $$x$$ horizontal distance. We have $$\tan \alpha = \frac{H-h}{x}$$ and $$\tan \beta = \frac{H+h}{x}$$. Equating $$x$$, we get $$\frac{H-h}{\tan \alpha} = \frac{H+h}{\tan \beta}$$. Expanding this gives $$H\tan\beta - h\tan\beta = H\tan\alpha + h\tan\alpha$$. Solving for $$H$$ yields $$H = h \frac{\tan \beta + \tan \alpha}{\tan \beta - \tan \alpha}$$.
Question 73 Unattempted
Match the specific Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP) with their corresponding Constitutional Articles:
List - I (DPSP) List - II (Article)
i. Equal justice and free legal aid 1. Article 40
ii. Organization of village panchayats 2. Article 44
iii. Uniform civil code 3. Article 39A
iv. Separation of judiciary from executive 4. Article 50
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-1, ii-3, iii-4, iv-2
B) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
C) i-3, ii-4, iii-1, iv-2
D) i-3, ii-1, iii-2, iv-4
Explanation:
Article 39A relates to equal justice and free legal aid. Article 40 mandates the organization of village panchayats. Article 44 directs towards a Uniform Civil Code. Article 50 calls for the separation of the judiciary from the executive.
Question 74 Unattempted
Consider the following statements about computer hardware and input/output devices:

I. A scanner is primarily an input device, whereas a printer is primarily an output device.
II. A touchscreen can function as both an input and an output device.
III. OCR converts printed or handwritten characters in an image into machine-readable text.
IV. A plotter is primarily used to capture sound and convert it into digital signals.

Which statements are correct?
A) I, II and III only
B) II, III and IV only
C) I, II, III and IV
D) I and II only
Explanation:
Statements I, II and III are correct. A scanner captures images or documents, a printer produces hard copies, and a touchscreen both displays information and receives touch input. Optical Character Recognition (OCR) recognises characters in images and converts them into machine-readable text. Statement IV is incorrect because plotters are used to produce precise drawings, diagrams and large-format graphics; microphones are commonly used to capture sound.
Question 75 Unattempted
Fill in the blanks with the correct words (homophones/confusables): 'Her profoundly ___ smile entirely masked an incredibly sharp and ___ mind that constantly calculated her rivals' weaknesses.'
A) indigenous, indigent
B) indigent, indigenous
C) ingenious, ingenuous
D) ingenuous, ingenious
Explanation:
'Ingenuous' means innocent, unsuspecting, and sincere. 'Ingenious' means clever, original, and inventive. She has an innocent (ingenuous) smile masking a clever (ingenious) mind.
Question 76 Unattempted
Choose the appropriate word to fill in the blank: 'The aristocrat's ___ behavior towards the peasantry incited a silent rebellion, as they despised his patronizing and haughty demeanor.'
A) deferential
B) obsequious
C) complaisant
D) supercilious
Explanation:
'Supercilious' means behaving or looking as though one thinks one is superior to others (haughty/arrogant). 'Complaisant' means willing to please; 'obsequious' and 'deferential' imply submissiveness, which contradicts the context.
Question 77 Unattempted
A thief is spotted by a patrolling policeman at a displacement of $$400 \text{ m}$$. A simultaneous chase initiates. If the thief flees at $$10 \text{ km/hr}$$ and the policeman sprints at $$15 \text{ km/hr}$$, what precise distance will the thief manage to cover before apprehension?
A) $$800 \text{ m}$$
B) $$1200 \text{ m}$$
C) $$1000 \text{ m}$$
D) $$600 \text{ m}$$
Explanation:
The relative closure speed is $$15 - 10 = 5 \text{ km/hr}$$, which equals $$\frac{25}{18} \text{ m/s}$$. The time taken to bridge the 400m gap is $$400 / (25/18) = 288 \text{ seconds}$$. In this exact timeframe, the distance traversed by the thief is $$\left(10 \times \frac{5}{18}\right) \text{ m/s} \times 288 \text{ s} = 800 \text{ meters}$$.
Question 78 Unattempted
Select the correct pronoun to complete the sentence: 'The CEO explicitly stated that the lucrative overseas assignment would be awarded to ___ the board believed had demonstrated the most exceptional leadership under pressure.'
A) whomever
B) who
C) whom
D) whoever
Explanation:
The pronoun acts as the subject of the verb phrase 'had demonstrated'. Although it follows the preposition 'to' and the interjected clause 'the board believed', the subjective case 'whoever' is required, not the objective 'whomever'.
Question 79 Unattempted
The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) was established in 1994 primarily for which of the following purposes?
A) To foster constructive dialogue and consultation on political and security issues
B) To establish a formal military alliance against external threats
C) To create a single currency zone in Southeast Asia similar to the Eurozone
D) To manage agricultural exports and quotas among member states
Explanation:
The ASEAN Regional Forum (ARF) is a multi-lateral platform designed to foster dialogue and consultation on political and security issues in the Indo-Pacific region.
Question 80 Unattempted
A defective analog clock uniformly gains exactly $$12 \text{ minutes}$$ every $$24 \text{ hours}$$. It is calibrated and set correctly at $$8:00 \text{ AM}$$ on a Monday. What will be the true accurate time when this clock indicates $$8:30 \text{ PM}$$ on the following Wednesday?
A) $$9:00 \text{ PM}$$
B) $$7:30 \text{ PM}$$
C) $$8:15 \text{ PM}$$
D) $$8:00 \text{ PM}$$
Explanation:
From Monday 8 AM to Wednesday 8:30 PM, the indicated time elapsed is 60 hours and 30 minutes. Let true elapsed time be $$T$$. The clock indicates $$(24 + 12/60)$$ hours for every 24 true hours, a ratio of $$24.2 : 24$$, or $$121 : 120$$. Thus, $$T \times (121/120) = 60.5 \implies T = 60 \text{ hours}$$. Adding 60 true hours to Monday 8 AM yields Wednesday 8:00 PM.
Question 81 Unattempted
Choose the most accurate synonym for the word 'ESOTERIC'.
A) Exoteric
B) Quotidian
C) Abstruse
D) Pellucid
Explanation:
'Esoteric' refers to knowledge intended for or likely to be understood by only a small number of people with a specialized knowledge or interest. 'Abstruse' (difficult to understand) is the closest synonym. 'Exoteric' is the direct antonym, 'pellucid' means clear, and 'quotidian' means ordinary.
Question 82 Unattempted
If $$x = \sqrt{3 + 2\sqrt{2}}$$, determine the exact value of the algebraic expression $$x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4}$$.
A) $$38$$
B) $$32$$
C) $$34$$
D) $$36$$
Explanation:
First, simplify $$x = \sqrt{(\sqrt{2}+1)^2} = \sqrt{2}+1$$. Its reciprocal is $$\frac{1}{x} = \sqrt{2}-1$$. Thus, $$x + \frac{1}{x} = 2\sqrt{2}$$. Squaring both sides yields $$x^2 + \frac{1}{x^2} = 8 - 2 = 6$$. Squaring again yields $$x^4 + \frac{1}{x^4} = 36 - 2 = 34$$.
Question 83 Unattempted
Select the option that correctly joins the two sentences using an adjective clause: 'The artifact was smuggled out of the country. Its historical significance is unparalleled.'
A) The artifact that historical significance is unparalleled was smuggled out of the country.
B) The artifact, whose historical significance is unparalleled, was smuggled out of the country.
C) The artifact, which its historical significance is unparalleled, was smuggled out of the country.
D) The artifact of which the historical significance is unparalleled smuggled out of the country.
Explanation:
The relative pronoun 'whose' is used to indicate possession (the historical significance OF the artifact) and correctly introduces the adjective clause modifying 'artifact'.
Question 84 Unattempted
Fill in the blank with the correct tense: 'By the time the intergalactic probe transmits the first high-resolution images of the exoplanet, it ___ through deep space for nearly forty-five years.'
A) will have traveled
B) will travel
C) will have been traveling
D) is traveling
Explanation:
The sentence requires the future perfect continuous tense to emphasize the continuous, ongoing nature of an action that will have been happening up to a specific point in the future.
Question 85 Unattempted
Consider the following statements about the Bharat Ratna:
1. The recommendations for Bharat Ratna are made by the Prime Minister directly to the President.
2. The number of annual awards is statutorily restricted to a maximum of three in a particular year.
3. The award cannot be given posthumously under any circumstances.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
A) 1 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1, 2, and 3
D) 1 and 2 only
Explanation:
The Prime Minister recommends the award to the President, and it is usually restricted to three per year. However, the rule regarding posthumous awards was changed in 1955 to allow it, making statement 3 incorrect.
Question 86 Unattempted
Which of the following ocean currents is a cold current that flows northward along the western coast of South America and significantly contributes to the extreme aridity of the Atacama Desert?
A) Benguela Current
B) Humboldt Current
C) Kuroshio Current
D) Agulhas Current
Explanation:
The Humboldt Current (or Peru Current) is a cold, low-salinity ocean current flowing north along South America's western coast, creating inversion layers that prevent rain formation over the Atacama Desert.
Question 87 Unattempted
Fill in the blanks with the correct articles: 'It is generally accepted that ___ iron is a heavy metal, but ___ iron of this particular ancient sword possesses anomalous properties.'
A) no article, no article
B) an, no article
C) no article, the
D) the, the
Explanation:
Material nouns (like iron) do not take an article when used in a general sense. However, when the material noun is specified or restricted to a particular instance (the iron of this particular sword), the definite article 'the' is required.
Question 88 Unattempted
Fill in the blank with the correct preposition: 'Despite his lack of formal academic training, he is uniquely endowed ___ an innate ability to decipher complex cryptographic codes.'
A) by
B) with
C) for
D) in
Explanation:
The correct preposition to follow the verb 'endowed' when referring to a quality, ability, or talent provided to someone is 'with' (endowed with).
Question 89 Unattempted
Match the landmark historical events of the Indian Freedom Struggle with their respective years:
List - I (Event) List - II (Year)
i. Surat Split 1. 1916
ii. Lucknow Pact 2. 1907
iii. Rowlatt Act 3. 1928
iv. Nehru Report 4. 1919
Choose the Correct Option:
A) i-2, ii-4, iii-1, iv-3
B) i-1, ii-2, iii-3, iv-4
C) i-4, ii-1, iii-3, iv-2
D) i-2, ii-1, iii-4, iv-3
Explanation:
The Surat Split of the INC occurred in 1907. The Lucknow Pact between INC and Muslim League was in 1916. The Rowlatt Act was passed in 1919. The Nehru Report was drafted in 1928.
Question 90 Unattempted
What is the most precise antonym for the word 'ALACRITY'?
A) Ebullience
B) Torpor
C) Celerity
D) Temerity
Explanation:
'Alacrity' means brisk and cheerful readiness or promptness. 'Torpor' means a state of physical or mental inactivity; lethargy, making it the perfect antonym. 'Celerity' is a synonym, 'ebullience' means cheerfulness, and 'temerity' means excessive boldness.
Question 91 Unattempted
Regarding the 'PM-KUSUM' (Pradhan Mantri Kisan Urja Suraksha evam Utthaan Mahabhiyan) scheme, consider the following statements:
1. It aims to add solar and other renewable capacity primarily in urban industrial sectors.
2. It provides heavily subsidized installation of standalone solar-powered agriculture pumps.
3. Farmers can sell surplus solar power generated on their barren lands to state DISCOMs.
Which of the statements are correct?
A) 1 and 3 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
PM-KUSUM is entirely focused on rural areas and the agriculture sector, not urban industrial hubs. It facilitates the installation of solar pumps and allows farmers to earn income by selling surplus power to DISCOMs.
Question 92 Unattempted
Study the following table of cyber threats and security measures:
ItemDescription
I. PhishingFraudulent communication intended to steal information or credentials
II. RansomwareMalware that may encrypt data and demand payment
III. FirewallA security control that filters network traffic according to rules
IV. HashingA reversible process that always restores the original plaintext
Which items are correctly matched?
A) II and IV only
B) I and II only
C) I, II, III and IV
D) I, II and III only
Explanation:
Items I, II and III are correctly matched. Phishing attempts to deceive users into revealing information or performing unsafe actions. Ransomware can encrypt files and demand payment. Firewalls filter network traffic based on configured rules. Item IV is incorrect because cryptographic hashing is designed as a one-way transformation; it is not ordinarily reversible to recover the original plaintext.
Question 93 Unattempted
Regarding the vernacular press in British India, consider the following statements:
1. 'Som Prakash' was started by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar to support the Indigo Revolt.
2. The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 was repealed by Lord Lytton.
3. 'Amrita Bazar Patrika' turned into an English daily overnight to escape the Vernacular Press Act.
Which of the above are correct?
A) 2 and 3 only
B) 1, 2, and 3
C) 1 and 2 only
D) 1 and 3 only
Explanation:
Lord Ripon, not Lord Lytton, repealed the Vernacular Press Act in 1882. Amrita Bazar Patrika converted to an English daily overnight to circumvent the act, and Som Prakash was indeed highly critical of British policies during the Indigo Revolt.
Question 94 Unattempted
With reference to the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
1. Article 15 prohibits discrimination on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth.
2. The Right to Property currently resides as a Fundamental Right under Article 31.
3. Article 21 guarantees protection of life and personal liberty to both citizens and non-citizens.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3
Explanation:
The Right to Property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights by the 44th Amendment Act (1978) and is now merely a legal right under Article 300A. Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
Question 95 Unattempted
Identify the analogy that best matches: EXCULPATE : BLAME ::
A) Extol : Praise
B) Incarcerate : Prison
C) Absolve : Guilt
D) Mitigate : Relief
Explanation:
'Exculpate' means to clear someone of 'blame'. This is an action-to-removal relationship. Similarly, 'Absolve' means to clear or free someone from 'guilt'.
Question 96 Unattempted
The archaeological site of Dholavira, known for its highly sophisticated water management and conservation system, is located in which geographical feature of India?
A) Khadir Bet island in the Rann of Kutch
B) Thar Desert
C) Deccan Plateau
D) Kathiawar Peninsula
Explanation:
Dholavira is located on Khadir Bet island in the Kutch Desert Wildlife Sanctuary in the Great Rann of Kutch, Gujarat.
Question 97 Unattempted
What is the meaning of the phrase 'A Pyrrhic victory'?
A) A victory that ends a long-standing diplomatic stalemate
B) A victory that inflicts such a devastating toll on the victor that it is tantamount to defeat
C) A victory achieved through brilliant strategic deception
D) A victory won by a vastly outnumbered underdog
Explanation:
A Pyrrhic victory refers to a success that comes with such heavy losses that it ruins the victor, named after King Pyrrhus of Epirus, whose army suffered irreplaceable casualties in defeating the Romans.
Question 98 Unattempted
The Abel Prize, often regarded globally as the equivalent of a Nobel Prize in its specific field, is awarded annually for outstanding scientific work in which discipline?
A) Architecture
B) Earth Sciences
C) Mathematics
D) Computer Science
Explanation:
The Abel Prize is awarded by the King of Norway to one or more outstanding mathematicians, established to compensate for the lack of a Nobel Prize in Mathematics.
Question 99 Unattempted
Examine the given deductive premises:
1. All algebraic functions are differentiable.
2. Some differentiable functions are continuous.
3. No continuous function is a step function.
Which of the following logical conclusions unequivocally follows?
A) No algebraic function is a step function.
B) Some algebraic functions are continuous.
C) None of the above
D) Some differentiable functions are not step functions.
Explanation:
Let sets be A, D, C, S. A is subset of D. D intersects C. C and S are mutually exclusive. Since C is completely isolated from S, and some elements of D are in C, those specific elements of D can never be S. Thus, some differentiable functions are explicitly not step functions.
Question 100 Unattempted
Evaluate the trigonometric sum: $$\cos\left(\frac{2\pi}{7}\right) + \cos\left(\frac{4\pi}{7}\right) + \cos\left(\frac{6\pi}{7}\right)$$
A) $$\frac{1}{2}$$
B) $$0$$
C) $$-\frac{1}{2}$$
D) $$1$$
Explanation:
Let $$S = \cos(2\pi/7) + \cos(4\pi/7) + \cos(6\pi/7)$$. Multiply by $$2\sin(\pi/7)$$. Applying $$2\sin(A)\cos(B) = \sin(A+B) + \sin(A-B)$$, the series telescopes and collapses to $$-\sin(\pi/7)$$. Thus, $$S = -1/2$$.